Why does Thomas Paine state the words of the british directly?

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pohnpei397 | College Teacher | (Level 3) Distinguished Educator

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It is not clear to me which particular article of "The Crisis" you are talking about.  There's more than one place where he quotes one British person or another.  With that in mind...

The best reason for Paine to be using the words of the British in his articles is because they actually help him make his argument.  When your opponent says something that helps you, it's better to quote his actual words rather than trying to paraphrase.  It makes your argument sound stronger and makes him look dumb because he's saying stuff that helps you.

So when he quotes Howe's words about the Congress, for example, they help him make the point that America does not need Britain or its help.

If you're talking about a particular quote and still need help, let me know...

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