Why did slaves gain emancipation before women gained the right to vote? Please explain!!!

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The most likely reason for this is that slavery was seen as a greater evil than denying women the right to vote.

If you think about it, there is much to be said for this thinking.  Of course, it is wrong for women to be denied the right to vote. ...

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The most likely reason for this is that slavery was seen as a greater evil than denying women the right to vote.

If you think about it, there is much to be said for this thinking.  Of course, it is wrong for women to be denied the right to vote.  However, it is not nearly as evil as the practice of actually enslaving an entire race of people.  For example, lack of suffrage did not condemn white women to be sexually molested by their owners or to be sold away from their husbands or children.

Even as a modern person with modern sensibilities, I would say that slavery is a greater evil than denying women the vote.  Imagine how much more people 150 years ago, who saw women as inherently inferior to men, would have felt this way.  Because people would have seen slavery as the greater evil, it ended before women got suffrage.

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