In The Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde by Robert Louis Stevenson, why did Mr. Hyde run over the girl?
Mr. Hyde is supposed to be completely evil. He goes out on the town to enjoy himself by reveling in activities which are supposedly immoral, wicked, and criminal. Dr.Jekyll presumably enjoys all this wicked behavior along with Hyde. Yet because of the prudery and inhibitions and censorship of Victorian Britain, Robert Louis Stevenson was unable and unwilling to describe any of the illicit pleasures indulged in by Mr. Hyde and vicariously by Dr. Jekyll. It is significant that when the story finally comes to the chapter in which Dr. Jekyll is supposedly confessing everything in a written statement titled "Henry Jekyll's Full Statement of the Case," he writes:
Into the details of the infamy at which I thus connived (for even now I can scarce grant that I committed it) I have no design of entering; I mean but to point out the warnings and the successive steps with which my chastisement approached.
The entire short novel is full of hints, veiled suggestions, circumlocutions, and stuffy language...
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