To what extent were the following Revolutions: American, French, and Russian inevitable?You must refer to the similarities and differences between all three Revolutions.

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hi1954 | Teacher | (Level 1) Associate Educator

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All three revolutions were caused by pressures which built up over time. In the American revolution the pressures were economic, political and cultural. The economics of the British governorships and military in the New World required more tax revenues from the colonies, but the political structure of the colonial governments made it difficult for the colonists to accept being taxed by a legislature on the other side of the Atlantic in which they had no voice.  Culturally, America had grown too independent of the "Mother Country" to submit to a British government doing something that seemed un-British to the colonists.  The oppression of the British government was certainly mild compared to what prompted the other revolutions.  The need for funds for defense of the colonies could have been explained to the colonial legislatures, and taxation undertaken through those bodies.  The demand of Parliament for the "right" to tax and the autocratic attitude of King George III mitigated against peace.

The French revolution was given impetus by the same political ideas from the Enlightenment which had affected the American ideals, and by the success of the American Revolution, but the mainspring of the revolt was the extreme taxation of the public and the extravagant waste of that money by the rulers, the oppressive nature of French laws and the obvious disdain the ruling class had for those they ruled. There were few real similarities to the American revolution; in America the actual break with Britain had been reluctant.  The French rising against their age-old aristocratic system was wholehearted.  Where there was some form of order maintained in America, the social destruction and loss of life of the French Revolution was appalling.  Any action which could have been taken by the royal government to address the people's grievances would have been unthinkable to the members of the ruling class.

The citizens of Russia had what was still essentially a feudal system, the oppressiveness of the government was even more severe, the secret police brutally effective. Serfdom had been abolished barely a generation before.  The Czar was the most autocratic ruler in the world.  The people were as poor as the French peasants had been.  The ruling class often thought of those they ruled as animals, and were as extravagent and vain as the French aristocracy had been.  Some factions of the revolution were informed by American ideals, but the main wellsprings of the Russian Revolutions were socialist, communist and anarchist thought.  The great loss of life in the First World War (and the ineptness of both the civil and military authorities) was the final straw to the long-suffering Russian peasants.  As in France of the 18th century, the ruling class of Russia had little or no concept of addressing in any way the grievances of the people.  Once the czarist government was overthrown the fragmented coalition was riven by dissension about continuing the war and by the various radical groups.  Lenin was too well prepared, too intelligent, too adept politically to fail to overthrow that government.  He then by ruthlessness and sheer force of personality seized control of the new government and established the Soviet state.  Lenin's intellect and energy made his revolution the most inevitable of the three.

mohamed1994's profile pic

mohamed1994 | Student, Grade 10 | eNotes Newbie

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I was going to post the same question!

Like I need more examples and pieces of evidence to support each paragraph for this essay question.

 

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