Shakespeare's Sonnet 116 is an eloquent portrayal of true love existing in all time periods within human existence. But the element that strikes me the most is the fact that the rhyming couplet at the last two lines of the Sonnet and are only eye-rhymes, and not real rhymes—"Proved" and "Loved." There have been many instances where I have found people say that either a) the pronunciation of the modern era is different from Shakespearean times, or that b) they are half-rhymes. But for me, this is not enough, and I have found myself asking whether or not this were done by purpose by the maestro of plays. So what I am asking is, what is the purpose of placing an eye-rhyme to the couplet and does it contribute to the themes and ideas of the poem?

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I like your theory on the eye-rhyme: Shakespeare telling us that what we see as harmony may not really be so. That said, as an English English teacher, there is a stronger case for the pronunciation of the time being the main issue.

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Even in modern times, certain English-speaking peoples pronounce "loved" as something closer to "looved." Some with "come," which can sound like "coom."I think it is close enough to qualify as an actual rhyming couplet, and don't think there's much more to it than that.

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