Is the quotient of a mixed number divided by a mixed number greater than or less than 1?This is a question on my sons math homework and I don't know how to help him.
The quotient of a mixed number dvided by a mixed number could be greater than , or equal to, or or less than one.
A number is a mixed number if it is whole number exceeded by proper fraction. Example : 3 and 1/4 written like 3 1/4, 9 and7/8 equal to 9+7/8 written like 9 7/8 etc.
Quotient could be greater than one:
The quotient of (3 and 1/2) devided by 1 and 1 /6 =(3 1/2)/(1 1/6)) = (7/2)/(7/6) = (7/2)(6/7) = 6/2 = 3. So three is the quotient of (3and1/2) divided by (1 and 1/6).
The following is the example to show that the quotient of division of two mixed numbers could be 1:
(4 and1/5)/ (4 and 1/5) = 1.
Quotient of division of two mixed number could less than 1:
(4 and 2/5)/(10 and 1/7 ) = (22/5)/(71/7) = 22*7/(71.5) =154/355) which is less than1.
So, we saw examples which shows that the quotient of two mixed numbers could greater than , equal to or less than one according as the value of numerator is greater than, equal to or less than the the value of the denominator.
try to prove this statement false. using an example, u can prove that this is false. so it is greater
quotient is answer to a division problem
When dividing fractions, you multiple to first number by the reciprocal of the second (the number flipped upside down)
_ / _
Is equal to 1/2 * 2/1, which is 1 (you multiple the top across, and the bottom across. (1/4)/(1/2) (1/4*2) is (1/8)
A mixed number means it is greater than 1 to start with, like (3/2)/(3/2) which is 1, or (3/2)/(4/2) which is (6/8) or 3/4.
(100/2)/(3/2) is (200/6) which is greater than 1.
(9/8)/(50/2) is (18/400) which is less than 1.
Seems like it is possible to come out either way. A fraction where the numerator (top) is greater than the denominator (bottom) is the same as a mixed number. 1_1/2 == 3/2