Theorem 1
Let `a in RR` then `lim_(n to infty)a/n=0.`
We will also use the fact that the codomain of sine function is `[-1,1].`
`lim_(n to infty)a_n=lim_(n to infty)sin n/n=`
We cannot calculate `sin infty,` but we know that its value must be between `-1` and `1.` Therefore, using theorem 1 we get
`lim_(n to infty)sin n/n=0`
As we can see the sequence is convergent and its limit is equal to 0.
The image below shows first 100 terms of the sequence. We can see that the sequence is alternating, but the terms are slowly approaching `x`-axis i.e. the sequence converges to zero.
See eNotes Ad-Free
Start your 48-hour free trial to get access to more than 30,000 additional guides and more than 350,000 Homework Help questions answered by our experts.
Already a member? Log in here.
Further Reading