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Lord Byron's letter to Thomas Moore, October, 31,1815 should be considered as "literature"? Why/why not?Hi My question is: Byron in his letters,” never writes to produce a literary effect. He writes to give information, to express precise and definite sentiments; and he does it with a direct exactness which is at once the absence of all art and the perfections of art.” So his letter to Thomas Moore, oct.31, 1815 should be considered as “literature “? Why/why not?

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Letters of many famous people and famous authors have been published.  I think it is important to consider the intended audience.  The other point is that any author is usually still going to write well no matter who he is writing to.  When writing to Moore, yes, you can expect a literary quality.

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