Kant famously argues that the only thing that is "good without qualification" or good in and of itself is a good will. For Kant, even an act that benefits others can lack moral worth if one does it with "ulterior motives." This is very intuitive: when one has good intentions, it is difficult to fault them as doing something immoral. But are there exceptions? Can you think of an example where one has genuinely good intentions yet still acts in such a way that we think they are immoral?
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