Infinitely keener than Lady Macbeth, is Macbeth suffering elaborately?
Your question isn't very clear, but I think you are asking if Macbeth suffers more than Lady Macbeth for the murder of Duncan. The answer is that he does suffer more because he is the one who actually did the killing. Even as he performed the deed, Macbeth says he heard voices saying that he would no longer sleep and insomnia does plague him the rest of the play, see Lady Macbeth's words to her husband after the banquet where Macbeth saw the ghost of the recently murdered Banquo, Act 3, sc. 4. l. 176. By Act 5, Lady Macbeth has been driven insane because of her part in the murder and she kills herself, thus ending her suffering. Macbeth lives through seeing most of his people turn against him, finding out that his much loved wife is dead and having little time to mourn her death, and then realizing that his sense of security was all a lie perpetrated by the witches. He realizes that he's been tricked and that he will, in all likelihood, die at Macduff's hands. He sees his death coming at the hand of his enemy; Lady Macbeth brings about her own death willingly. It is fitting that Macbeth's suffering is greater because he could have stopped the series of events by stopping up his ambition, by telling his wife that he would not go through with the murder of Duncan, but he is weak and he gives in to Lady Macbeth.