In A Tale of Two Cities, is Charles Dickens more sympathetic toward the aristocracy or the peasants?

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I don't believe Dickens is necessarily criticizing a single group at large, although he doesn't seem sympathetic to the aristocracy much at all. While there are exceptions, he shows some support for the French Revolutionaries and applauds their future triumph through the prescient vision in the last chapter.

The novel A Tale of Two Cities shows that there are humans at every level of the economic scale, and that they can be both good and evil. Dickens does, however, support the idea that people should be willing to rise up and overcome oppression—such as the oppressive acts of the French elite. In particular, Dickens's portrayal of the Marquis's vile actions and their later repercussions expresses his dissatisfaction with the elite classes, but he is not intending to say that the wealthy are inherently evil. He is more so making a commentary that everyone has a capacity for good and evil, and that wealth and power will lend themselves toward corruption.

There are moments in this novel...

(The entire section contains 5 answers and 654 words.)

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