to have and to be in the Merchant of Venice Antonio "is a good man", "he is sufficient", but "he hath an argosy bound to Tripolis....". Is the difference between " to be" and "to have" of some relevance in Shakespeare's Merchant of Venice?

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Being refers to the state of something. In this sense, Antonio's state is one which makes him a good and sufficient man. To have refers to the possession of something. In this sense, Antonio has a boat (argosy). So, yes, there is a difference between to be (a person's state) and the have (the act of possessing).

I really do not think that there is any relevance outside of the typical use of each of the words.

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