European Dominance was based upon all but which of the following:1the nation-state's control, 2submissive nature of non-western cultures or 3european cultural arrogance? 

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larrygates | College Teacher | (Level 1) Educator Emeritus

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The correct answer would be 1--The nation-states control.  The European nations which overcame native peoples possessed superior weaponry and an arrogant attitude of superiority which allowed them to overwhelm almost all who opposed them. The typical European attitude towards native peoples was perhaps best expressed by Lord Kitchener in discussing British control of India:

It is this consciousness of the inherent superiority of the European which has won for us India. However well educated and clever a native may be, and however brave he may prove himself, I believe that no rank we can bestow upon him would cause him to be considered an equal of the British officer.

Although native peoples initially violently opposed European intervention, their attempts were put down savagely. Also, since the culture of most peoples of Asia and Africa involved their doing as they were told by superiors without question, they rather easily fell under the yoke of European control. There was some opposition, such as that led by Mohandas K. Gandhi in India, who worked for Indian nationalism; yet overall, most, like Ismail of Egypt, accepted the fact that European culture was superior and worked to modernize his country rather than preserve its historical culture. A similar response was seen in Japan, in which the Meiji Restoration sought to modernize Japan in accordance with western culture.

 

 

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