Does Shakespeare's background have anything to do with the points he makes in King Lear? Is there a bias in what was written?
I think that further detail is needed in the question. The point where I am stuck is the idea of Shakespeare's background and the points made in the play. To what points are being referred? I would think that this creates an interesting situation. How does Shakespeare, the author, escape the trap of attempting to make transcendental points about human beings if his background reflects it? Can an artist suggest truths about human consciousness if these points are applicable to the artist's own subjective experience, as well? The other point that would need to be made in terms of clarification would be why is "bias" something that is necessarily bad. One of the points that comes out of the play is the idea that modernity is composed of multiple and sometimes divergent biases, or lenses of perception. If Shakespeare is guilty of bias, then he would only be proving the point of the play. I think that there needs to be more clarification or detail in the questions in order to assess if his background and potential biases actually detracts from the content of the play.