Does the old King's ghost truly appear to Hamlet? Or is it a psychological delusion?

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Shakespeare leaves the answer as to whether or not the ghostreally appeared to Hamlet as ambiguous (not clear or definite). Ambiguity is really what makes the play great as it creates doubt within the audience members as to whether Hamlet is the noble son they want to believe he...

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Shakespeare leaves the answer as to whether or not the ghost really appeared to Hamlet as ambiguous (not clear or definite). Ambiguity is really what makes the play great as it creates doubt within the audience members as to whether Hamlet is the noble son they want to believe he is.

If the king's ghost is a psychological delusion, each of Hamlet's actions end up truly belonging to him. There is no larger cause for his actions. Instead, they become the actions of a young man deranged after the death of his father. If this is the case, his delusion would be based initially on suspicion and later proven to be fact, as he does find out that his father was actually murdered.

However, more than likely, Shakespeare intended for the ghost to be seen as real. This is why he makes sure the audience knows others can actually see the ghost before Hamlet sees the ghost.

Still, this belief that the ghost is real because others see it can be explained away. Maybe the guards say they see a ghost and the power of suggestion gets Hamlet to believe that it is true. But the fact is that no one but Hamlet has a conversation with it. This is why the answer to this question is an ambiguous one.

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