Doctrinal changes in CatholicismI have often read/heard/been told that the Catholic Church has changed its doctrine over the centuries, but no examples are given.  What are the changes?

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litteacher8's profile pic

litteacher8 | High School Teacher | (Level 3) Distinguished Educator

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The doctrines of the Carholic church may be rooted in the Bible, while the disciplines are more cultural. In other words, they can be affected by cultural shifts and changes in accepted practices and ideas. Not eating fish on Friday might be deeply ingrained, but I read a statistic recently that a surprisingly large number of Catholic women do use birth control.
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enotechris | College Teacher | (Level 2) Senior Educator

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According to the website:

ttp://bfhu.wordpress.com/2007/06/02/how-can-the-catholic-church-change-its-doctrines/

The Catholic Church never changes its doctrines; it only changes its disciplines. Doctrines are stated to be rooted in unchangeable truth; disciplines apparently can come and go.  The site, as examples, relates the eating fish on fridays (or not) and the marriage of priests (or not) as particular disciplines that have altered over time.

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pohnpei397 | College Teacher | (Level 3) Distinguished Educator

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There have been a few doctrinal changes, like the one making popes officially infallible back in the Middle Ages.  However, most of the changes have been to ceremony and such, not to doctrine.  For example, the change from Latin Mass to vernacular was a big deal but not necessarily doctrinal.

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michaelpaulheart | (Level 1) Honors

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There have been a few doctrinal changes, like the one making popes officially infallible back in the Middle Ages.  However, most of the changes have been to ceremony and such, not to doctrine.  For example, the change from Latin Mass to vernacular was a big deal but not necessarily doctrinal.

  I have heard this before:

-that the Catholic Church originally and officially said from the beginning in the 1st and 2nd centuries that the Pope is not infallible

-and that it had continually affirmed this position for centuries afterward whenever and wherever the possibility of Papal infallibility was proposed,

-and that later in the Middle Ages the same Catholic Church reversed its position and officially declared that henceforth the Pope is infallible.

The problem I encounter is the fact that:

-to my knowledge no document supporting the above "original" position or doctrine from the 1st though the 14th centuries denying Papal infallibility is ever cited by those who claim the Pope was not held to be infallible all that time,

-and to my knowledge no document declaring an official "reversal" of the position that the Pope is not infallible is ever cited by those who claim that the Catholic Church in the Middle Ages officially made the Pope henceforth infallible.

You referred to one doctrinal change "the one making popes officially infallible back in the Middle Ages":  I should very much like to know when the change was made, who made the change official, and the official document that is the authoritative source declaring this official change in Catholic doctrine.  You did not cite it in your post, and I would very much like to know the document/s you refer to.

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