I think that there might be some real questioning about the nature of the question. I don't think that Shakespeare stereotypes her based on gender. Her presentation in the play is complex, as she represents both the most unholy of actions and the remourse and regret of someone who has understood the nature of personal sin. In this, she is complex and intricate, not a simplified stereotype based on gender. If there is a stereotype associated with Lady Macbeth, it might be developed by readers or critics who are so quick to associate her as the primary cause of the bloodshed in the drama. This view might be accurate to a certain extent, but fails to take into account two key points. The first is that Lady Macbeth might goad or galvanize her husband into action, but it is he who actually carries out the act and he who actually stands by it. At the same time, the gender stereotype of Lady Macbeth fails to accept that Macbeth, after a certain point, pretty much severs all communication with his wife. At a point in the narrative, he is on his own and his wife is no longer relevant to he or the defense of his throne. If this is the case, then she cannot be the cause of evil for she is no longer present in his calculations. He acts on his own or with the aid of the witches. It is here where the gender stereotype fails. Yet, some will continue with it because it is provides comfort to individuals in blaming Lady Macbeth as the source of all evil, as opposed to representing Macbeth's crimes as a continual representation of multiple and varied factors.