Did the Romans believe in equality before the law? I'm confused , did the Romans believe in equality before the law? And can you give me some examples for this question? please and thank you  

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No, Rome was a class-based society. If you were of one of the lower classes, you would get the short end of the stick justice-wise. If you were rich, chances are you would face a very different system of justice. Of course they had slaves too.
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