At 39a–42a in Plato's Apology, which fallacy does Socrates use in his premises to argue that death is not to be feared?

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Socrates's first logical fallacy is a form of post hoc ergo propter hoc—that is, after this, because of this—and is centered on Socrates's argument that his personal god or spirit, the daimonion, who normally opposes him when he does something likely to harm himself, has remained silent from the time Socrates left for the trial to its conclusion:

Probably what has occurred to me has turned out to be good. ... For there is no way that the accustomed sign [from his personal spirit] would not have opposed me unless I were about to do something good.

Socrates assumes that there exists a direct cause and effect relationship between the spirit's silence and the rightness of his actions during the trial. In other words, because the spirit fails to speak to Socrates, Socrates takes no other actions or makes further arguments to save himself, his conclusion being that death cannot be bad if he was not warned to avoid it.

A second logical fallacy occurs when Socrates argues that being dead results...

(The entire section contains 3 answers and 1033 words.)

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