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What is ironic about Romeo's soliloquy in act 5 scene 1?please answer in pointform

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shahadpouls | Student, Grade 9 | (Level 1) Honors

Posted October 10, 2011 at 7:46 AM via web

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What is ironic about Romeo's soliloquy in act 5 scene 1?

please answer in pointform

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wannam | High School Teacher | (Level 3) Educator

Posted October 11, 2011 at 12:00 AM (Answer #1)

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Romeo's soliloquy is ironic because he is discussing a dream which is very close to reality.  Romeo is talking about his dream where he is dead and Juliet kisses him back to life.  This is very close to the friar's plan for Juliet.  She will pretend to be dead and it will be Romeo who revives her.  Of course, we know that it will not turn out this way.  It is ironic that Romeo would have this dream just as Balthasar is bringing him the news of Juliet's death.  We know that Juliet is not really dead.  She could be revived from death just as Romeo was in his dream.  Romeo and Balthasar do not know she isn't really dead.  This is an example of dramatic irony because we, the audience, know something that they, the characters, do not.

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syeda1997 | Student, Undergraduate | (Level 1) eNoter

Posted November 10, 2011 at 8:23 AM (Answer #2)

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well the dream kind of relates to friar lawrence's plan which is ironic because the characters dont know what is going to happen in the play.... i hope this helps

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