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What is the answer for question 5. b) ? http://postimg.org/image/f5d950icj/

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lkballer24 | Student, Grade 11 | (Level 1) Valedictorian

Posted May 5, 2013 at 3:10 PM via web

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What is the answer for question 5. b) ?

http://postimg.org/image/f5d950icj/

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justaguide | College Teacher | (Level 2) Distinguished Educator

Posted May 5, 2013 at 3:39 PM (Answer #1)

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From the graph of the function, it can be seen that for different values of x, the resulting value of y = f(x) is the same. The function defines a many to one mapping.

The inverse function of the same is a relation that defines a one-to-many mapping. A function cannot be a many to one mapping. If one value of x gives different values for f(x), it is not possible to determine which of the values should be considered and which of them should not. 

As a result the inverse function does not exist.

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