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what according  to  you  does aristotle  mean  by 'pleasure  proper  to ...

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yadav | Student, Undergraduate | eNotes Newbie

Posted July 15, 2011 at 4:31 PM via web

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what according  to  you  does aristotle  mean  by 'pleasure  proper  to  tragedy'?

what according  to  you  does aristotle  mean  by 'pleasure  proper  to  tragedy'?

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thanatassa | College Teacher | (Level 2) Educator Emeritus

Posted July 16, 2011 at 7:34 PM (Answer #2)

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The pleasure appropriate to tragedy is pleasure derived from mimesis by means of word and spectacle. According to Aristotle, viewing mimesis, or imitation, is instinctively pleasurable for all humans.

 

 

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litteacher8 | Middle School Teacher | (Level 1) Distinguished Educator

Posted July 27, 2011 at 3:56 AM (Answer #3)

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There's a German word for taking pleasure in the fall of celebrities, but I don't know how to spell it- even to look it up! The idea is that people take pleasure in watching suffering. It sounds terrible, but if you look at as relief that they aren't the ones experiencing the tragedy it's understandable.

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