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"Time wasn't marked as accurately then, for the common people anyway. It was just...

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harleymiller | Student, Grade 10 | (Level 1) Honors

Posted June 4, 2009 at 8:45 AM via web

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"Time wasn't marked as accurately then, for the common people anyway. It was just before Cromwell's rule, though".

This is at the end of chapter 15 (The Cullens), when Edward is talking about Carlisle and his past. They are talking about how Carlisle does not know when he was born because time wasn't so accurate back then. However I do not understand how the Cromwell rule fits in. I know about what the Cromwell rule means - that something doesn't have to be 1 or 0. But I don't understand how it fits in.

???

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goreadabook | High School Teacher | (Level 2) Assistant Educator

Posted June 5, 2009 at 2:54 AM (Answer #1)

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This statement in the book is referring to Oliver Cromwell's rule as the 1st Lord Protector of England in 1653.  Edward was saying that Carlisle doesn't know the exact year of his birth, but he knows it was sometime in the 1640's, because it was just before Cromwell's rule from 1653-1658. 

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udonbutterfly | TA , College Freshman | (Level 1) Valedictorian

Posted August 13, 2014 at 1:37 AM (Answer #2)

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The reason that Meyer adds in Cromwell is pinpoint the time that Carlisle was born in. The Cromwell here is used to mean the ruling of Oliver Cromwell who, by the way ruled without having to be the heir of the throne, ruled between 1653 to 1658. So it was before 1653 that Carlisle was born especially since Carlisle grew up the son of someone in the church. Cromwell during his time was a Puritan and didn't take well to Catholics so there many things that he did to spite them. 

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