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Soliloquy is used in Shakespeare's tragedies more than in his comedies. Why? What...
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no one know the answer???!!!
Posted by berrygirl on February 23, 2012 at 8:07 PM (Answer #1)
I certainly don't, as I am an unskilled amateur Shaxberd fan. A good answer to the question was recently posted here or in the HAMLET section. Type your Q in the search Shakespeare box(above right) or the search HAMLET box etc. Some interesting comments are in Greenblatt's WILL IN THE WORLD(see Shakespeare, William, plays of in the index and under that the terms "strategic opacity in." Professor H. Levin wrote something like Tragedy tends to isolate where comedy brings together( I can't find the exact quote at the moment). Some might note that human nature is such that people are social creatures and therefore we find dialogue in the comedies and soliloquies in the tragedies. Some might pause as one of their favorite soliloquies is Nick Bottom's that begins "When my cue comes, call me, and I will answer"(A MIDSUMMER NIGHT'S DREAM4.1).
Posted by muddy-mettled on February 23, 2012 at 11:37 PM (Answer #2)
The Q & A posted in the HAMLET section January 12 is a good example.
Posted by muddy-mettled on February 23, 2012 at 11:45 PM (Answer #3)
As someone wrote, "Oh!" the author is presenting a character's personal attempt to resolve or reconcile conflict or opposing forces.
Posted by muddy-mettled on February 24, 2012 at 12:35 AM (Answer #4)
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