Since the 1950's, I've had numerous arguments about the title of Shakespeare's play, "A Midsummer Night's Dream." I distinctly remember hearing (on an old 1950's quiz show as a kid) an MC saying that this was "the most mispronounced title in history." He went on to say that it should be "A Midsummer's Night Dream," but no one says it that way. Is there any validity to this? My meager research indicates that Shakespeare was apparently directing his audience to the Summer Solstice, or "Midsummer's Eve." This seems to strengthen the mispronunciation argument. Can anyone help me with this?
Just curious, and thanks in advance.
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