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To which period does "Pride and Prejudice" belong: Georgian, Regency or...

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anadiani | Student, Undergraduate | eNotes Newbie

Posted December 10, 2008 at 8:24 AM via web

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To which period does "Pride and Prejudice" belong: Georgian, Regency or Victorian?

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lit24 | College Teacher | Valedictorian

Posted December 10, 2008 at 10:37 AM (Answer #1)

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 King George III who ruled England from 1760-1820 went mad in 1810. Since he was not fit to rule the country, his son the Prince of Wales was appointed the vice-regent and ruled the country instead of him. The prefix 'vice' means 'instead of.'  King George III died in 1820 and the vice-regent became a full fledged King George IV.  King George IV ruled England from 1820-1830.

However, the term 'Regency Period' is often expanded to apply to the years between 1795 and 1837, a time characterised by distinctive fashions, politics and culture. In this sense, it can be considered to be a transitional period between the Georgian and Victorian eras. The era was distinctive for its architecture, literature, fashions, and politics.

Jane Austen (16th December 1775 to 18th July 1817) spent most of  her adult life during the rule of the Vice-Regent. So, it is appropriate that she be classified as belonging to the 'Regency Period.'

"Pride and Prejudice" was initially written by her between 1796 and 1797 when she was at Steventon. However, it was later revised by her at Chawton and published on  28th January 1813. Hence it belongs to the 'Regency Period.'

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parinapdhilla | Student , Undergraduate | eNotes Newbie

Posted January 4, 2012 at 7:05 PM (Answer #2)

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it belongs to the regency period. :)


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rachel9440 | Student , Undergraduate | eNotes Newbie

Posted January 23, 2012 at 4:49 AM (Answer #3)

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juliajones97 | Student , Grade 11 | eNoter

Posted February 13, 2012 at 3:04 PM (Answer #4)

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Regency period, as was not written nor set nor references either the Georgian or Victorian periods

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