If Euripides' character Medea is not a victim of the gods, how and where does Euripides suggest that she is a victim of the Fates?

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noahvox2 | College Teacher | (Level 2) Educator

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Given the violence that Medea carries out in the course of Euripides' play, it is difficult to see how she could be either a victim of the gods (with the possible exception of Aphrodite and Eros) or a victim of the Fates or Fate.

The word "fate" occurs only five times in Johnston's English translation of the play (see the link below) and none of these references refers to the fate of Medea. Two of these references are to the "fate" (not in the sense of "destiny") of Medea's children as she considers killing them; one refers to the fate of children in general; one refers to the fate of Creon's daughter when Medea kills her; the final occurrence of the word "fate" in Johnston's translation is to Jason's fate (again, not in the sense of destiny) after Medea kills the children.

The word "destiny" occurs just once in Johnston's translation, but this also is in reference to Jason's destiny as the Chorus observes that Jason was wrong about his own destiny.

Personally, I think the concept of "fate" is way over-emphasized with respect to Greek culture and Greek tragedy.


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