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Is Macbeth guilty for the death of Duncan, and if so, why?
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There is no doubt that Macbeth is guilty of killing Duncan. Shakespeare makes it very clear that he is the one who stabbed him. It is reasonable to ask, however, whether he was personally responsible for the crime or whether he was driven to do so by supernatural forces in the form of the witches. Shakespeare is not clear on this point, probably intentionally. It seems that Macbeth's ambition intersects with these evil forces in such a way as to make the murders possible. If Macbeth is a victim of fate, he does not seem an unwilling victim. It could also be argued that Macbeth was driven to commit the murder of Duncan by Lady Macbeth. But as Lady Macbeth points out, it was Macbeth who first conceived of committing murder to gain the crown. And he observes himself that it is his own "vaulting ambition" that drives him, not anyone else. Ultimately, that was his only reason to commit the crime.
Posted by rrteacher on May 24, 2012 at 12:40 AM (Answer #1)
yeah Macbeth is guilty for this crime because he didn't want to kill his kinsman but he has to do that cause of fate, supernatural elements and also for his ambition to accomplish but the most evident i would say is Lady Macbeth , she manipulated him and provoked him to murder King Duncan
Posted by diali on September 29, 2012 at 11:03 AM (Answer #2)
yes he is guilty foe murdering Duncan but he did the crime because of manipulation of his wife who said that i would have killed Duncan if he not resembled my father while sleeping. And also his own ambition to become a king is noticeable
Posted by diali on February 2, 2013 at 1:13 PM (Answer #3)
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