Why do you believe Laertes has to translate much of Ophelia's grief? Is his analysis of her motivations and words accurate?
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They do appear to have a close relationship throughout the play--perhaps he translates so much because she doesn't make sense to the "adult" world. I see this as similar to older siblings translating the childhood gibberish of their younger siblings. I'm not sure his analysis is completely accurate. Even though they are close, she does not reveal her deepest feelings about Hamlet to him. He may be clouded by a brother's protective nature.
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