Better Students Ask More Questions.
Immanuel Kant's categorical imperative maintains that we should always act so as to...
1 Answer | add yours
This statement is absolutely false. In fact, it is more or less the direct opposite of what Kant really says in his categorical imperative. This statement is more of a statement of Mill's or Bentham's utilitarianism, not of Kant's moral philosophy.
The categorical imperative has nothing to do with consequences, just with motivations and intentions. It says that we should always act in such a way that our actions could become the basis of a universal moral law. All that this says is that we should act in ways that have motives that would be good moral laws. It does not say anything about measuring the consequences of the actions.
Posted by pohnpei397 on December 16, 2010 at 11:03 PM (Answer #1)
Related QuestionsSee all »
Join to answer this question
Join a community of thousands of dedicated teachers and students.