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Does it seem to you that Medea's rage in Medea by Euripides is justified by what has...

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heschultz | (Level 1) Honors

Posted April 29, 2012 at 10:16 PM via web

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Does it seem to you that Medea's rage in Medea by Euripides is justified by what has happened to her or is she over-doing it?

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thanatassa | College Teacher | (Level 2) Educator Emeritus

Posted April 29, 2012 at 10:59 PM (Answer #1)

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To the original audience, Medea's rage in Medea by Euripides, would have seen unjustified. It would have been viewed as an example, though, of the failings of women, in general, to control their emotions and act as moral beings, and evidence that the oppression of women in Greek culture was justified, and that the barbarians (note that Medea, as a foreigner, would have been termed a barbarian by the Greeks) were wrong in giving any freedoms to women. Modern feminist critics, however, would argue that Medea's rage was justified both in terms of her individual position and in reaction to that very oppression.

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