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coul you disscus it
"where for instance ,English is learned as a seconed or additional language in parts of the world once clonized by Britain ,that language learning has not been neutral,any more than teaching children who speak a london or Caribbean dialect of English to speak and write in standard British English is neutral.The languge of schooling will be always carry the anbiguities inherent in the reasons there are for learning them."
another example Children learn from their earliest conversation with adults .
as two policemen come to arrest Ezeulu ,the chief priest ,whose authority is threatened just at the point when he is preparing -disastrously,as it turn out-to make overtures to the local white officials and to the powers they stand for.
using specific forms of English reflect allegiances
Here, can I write about Dorothy Richardson,as a feminist English writer, who had in her work the equality issues between men and women, and used English language of course to show that, rather to show women's culture allegiances.
Your posts are rambling and difficult to understand, but you do make a point about the English being taught in schools where other language is preferred by local culture. This shows an arrogance of those who colonized the area in that they have identified the region's culture (including language) as inferior or of secondary importance. It is possible that this viewpoint is a result of wanting power or control over those who have been colonized.
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