The Fall of the House of Usher Group

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fot
Student
College - Junior

Why does Roderick refer to the narrator twice as "Madman" in the final scene of "The Fall of the House of Usher"?

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Posted by fot on Thursday January 8, 2009 at 5:59 AM and tagged with madman, narrator, roderick, the fall of the house of usher.

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  1. enotechris Teacher
    Vocational

    eNotes Editor

    The ambiguity in the use of the term leaves Poe's intentions up for interpretation. Although Roderick shrieks "Madman" twice in the last pages of the story, its not clear if he is addressing the narrator or is referring to himself. It's the only time that the term is used in the story; certainly Roderick deteriorates as the story progresses; he may have come to the self-realization that he has indeed gone mad. However, madmen tend not to be self-aware; it's possible that Roderick cannot accept the fact that he is going mad, and so projects his madness onto the narrator, and accuses him of being mad instead, which would only underscore the fact that Roderick is indeed mad!

    Sources:
    http://www.enotes.com/short-story-criticism/fall-house-us...

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    Posted by enotechris on Thursday January 8, 2009 at 6:32 AM